Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 05:14

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Have you made a female relative or friend squirt?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why do Democrats call any Republican "Magats", like they are subhuman?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.